> For many languages, the expectation is that LL should simply be equivalent
> to LL_TT where LL is the language code and TT is the only territory code
> where the language has a significant user population.
So, do you think that "en" should be equal to "en_UK" instead of "en_US" (USA has a significant part of population that prefers e.g. Spanish over English)?
I'd prefer "en" to mean "English without any country specific details (compatible with all international standards where possible)" instead of "English with random country specific details".
I'm aware that historically "en" has been equivalent to "en_US" but is there any actual reason for this?
> For many languages, the expectation is that LL should simply be equivalent
> to LL_TT where LL is the language code and TT is the only territory code
> where the language has a significant user population.
So, do you think that "en" should be equal to "en_UK" instead of "en_US" (USA has a significant part of population that prefers e.g. Spanish over English)?
I'd prefer "en" to mean "English without any country specific details (compatible with all international standards where possible)" instead of "English with random country specific details".
I'm aware that historically "en" has been equivalent to "en_US" but is there any actual reason for this?